The New York Rangers are expected to make some major changes to their roster when the free agency market opens on July 1st. Patrick Kane is one name that has been tied to the Blueshirts in recent rumors, but there may be another big fish New York could be targeting as well.
Per Pierre LeBrun, Steven Stamkos’ agent confirmed he will remain a free agent when the market opens Monday afternoon. The longtime Tampa Bay captain has an elite shooting ability, making him an exciting option for Chris Drury and the Rangers to consider looking at.
Stamkos, 34, is coming off a massive eight year contract worth $8.5 million annually. His age hasn’t slowed him down one bit, as the veteran forward has gone over a point per game in seven of his last eight seasons. He’d be an incredible addition to the Rangers’ roster, but would come with a hefty cap hit on what would likely be a multi-year deal.
In addition to Stamkos’ elite skill, he brings a championship-winning mentality that not many other players possess. He’s one three Stanley Cups with the Lightning, and has played in five total Finals. The Rangers have been cursed with many of their players falling off in the playoffs, but Stamkos has proven to be an elite postseason warrior. His leadership and experience would be an asset that the Blueshirts have been lacking for quite a long time.
If Drury is somehow able to clear enough cap space to make it possible, he should absolutely take a crack at signing Stamkos. Many teams will be gunning to sign the veteran superstar, but fans have seen Drury pull off more incredible stunts than this.
Leave a Reply